EMT Practice Test
1. Question Content...
Question2: Where does the security administrator activate Identity Awareness within SmartDashboard?
Question4: What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?
Question11: What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?
Question14: What is the purpose of Captive Portal?
Question15: In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
Question18: What happens when you run the command: fw sam -J src [Source IP Address]?
Question19: The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:
Question22: What is the Manual Client Authentication TELNET port?
Question23: What is the default method for destination NAT?
Question24: Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?
Question26: Which of the following is NOT a back up method?
Question30: What happens if the identity of a user is known?
Question33: What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?
Question34: Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R80 gateways is installed during the _______ .
Question36: Which of the following is NOT an alert option?
Question39: Which of the following actions do NOT take place in IKE Phase 1?
Question40: In the R80 SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?
Question42: Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients in R80?
Question45: What are the two types of address translation rules?
Question48: Which remote Access Solution is clientless?
Question49: Why would an administrator see the message below?
Question50: At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?
Question51: Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?
Question54: What component of R80 Management is used for indexing?
Question56: Which authentication scheme requires a user to possess a token?
Question58: Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?
Question64: Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?
Question66: What is the appropriate default Gaia Portal address?
Question67: Which of the following is NOT an attribute of packer acceleration?
Question68: What is also referred to as Dynamic NAT?
Question69: What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?
Question71: Where would an administrator enable Implied Rules logging?
Question72: Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?
Question74: When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?
Question75: Office mode means that:
Question81: Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?
Question85: Which NAT rules are prioritized first?
Question88: Which of the following is NOT an alert option?
Question89: Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API's?
Question96: Which set of objects have an Authentication tab?
Question98: R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?
Question100: Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.
Question101: As you review this Security Policy, what changes could you make to accommodate Rule 4?
Question104: Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?
Question106: Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?
Question110: When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R77?
Question111: Where do you verify that UserDirectory is enabled?
Question112: Which of the following are types of VPN communicates?
Question113: How many packets does the IKE exchange use for Phase 1 Main Mode?
Question114: What is the benefit of Manual NAT over Automatic NAT?
Question115: Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?
Question116: Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?
Question118: Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?
Question119: Choose the correct statement regarding Implicit Rules.
Question121: Look at the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.
Question127: Fill in the blank: The R80 utility fw monitoris used to troubleshoot _____________
Question129: Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?
Question130: From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:
Question132: What port is used for communication to the User Center with SmartUpdate?
Question134: What port is used for delivering logs from the gateway to the management server?
Question135: Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?
Question137: What command would show the API server status?
Question139: Fill in the blank: Once a license is activated, a ________ should be installed.
Question140: Which of these attributes would be critical for a site-to-site VPN?
Question142: Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?
Question144: What SmartEvent component creates events?
Question145: In R80, Unified Policy is a combination of
Question147: What is the difference between an event and a log?
Question152: What are the two high availability modes?
Question153: Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?
Question155: The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?
Question159: Which tool CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate R77?
Question161: Using R80 Smart Console, what does a "pencil icon" in a rule mean?
Question163: Which of the following is a hash algorithm?
Question164: Which application should you use to install a contract file?
Question165: Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?
Question166: Which of the following is TRUE about the Check Point Host object?
Question171: The CDT utility supports which of the following?
Question173: Fill in the blank: Each cluster has __________ interfaces.
Question175: Choose what BEST describes a Session.
Question176: What is true about the IPS-Blade?
Question177: The most important part of a site-to-site VPN deployment is the ________ .
Question179: Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.
Question181: Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?
Question182: Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?
Question183: What does ExternalZone represent in the presented rule?
Question184: How do you configure an alert in SmartView Monitor?
Question188: SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:
Question190: Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?
Question191: The following graphic shows:
Question192: A digital signature:
Question195: What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?
Question196: Fill in the blank: RADIUS protocol uses ______ to communicate with the gateway.
Question197: Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a _______ and _______ .
Question198: Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?
Question199: What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?
Question203: Which of the following is NOT an alert option?
Question204: What is Consolidation Policy?
Question207: The Gaia operating system supports which routing protocols?
Question208: Which command is used to obtain the configuration lock in Gaia?
Question209: What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?
Question212: What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?
Question213: Which of the following is NOT an element of VPN Simplified Mode and VPN Communities?
Question214: How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?
Question216: Look at the screenshot below. What CLISH command provides this output?
Question218: Which is the correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvent components:
Question219: Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?











